1998 State Dairy Quiz Bowl


SENIOR


TRUE OR FALSE

 1.  T or F     A young cow is faulted in the show ring if the udder hangs below the hock.

  TRUE

 2.  T or F     It is possible for a cow to have mastitis and not show changes in her milk on a strip cup?

 TRUE, SHE MAY HAVE SUBCLINICAL MASTITIS

3.  T or F     Membership in Dairy Shrine is for a lifetime.

 TRUE

 4.  T or F     A combination of cottonseed hulls and corn grain can replace corn silage in a dairy cow ration.

  TRUE

 5.  T or F     The best time to inseminate a cow is about 12 hours after she first comes in heat.

   TRUE

 6.  T or F     30 pounds would be considered a normal weight for a newborn Jersey calf.

   FALSE

 7.  T or F     In a good breeding program, type traits should receive twice the importance predicted transmitting ability
                     that milk receives.

  FALSE

 8.  T or F     Udder, teat, and milk vein injuries should be sutured even if they appear to stop bleeding after you have
                     applied pressure.

TRUE

9.  T or F     The percent protein in a cow's milk changes less from month to month than does the butterfat percent.

TRUE

10.  T or F    Homogenization kills harmful bacteria in milk.

FALSE


 1.  During which of the following lactations would a group of cows be expected to have the highest peak milk production?

     a) first lactation
     b) second lactation
     c) third lactation

     c) THIRD LACTATION

 2.  Rapid breathing, coughing, and a high temperature are good signs of what diseases in calves?

     a) hollow tail
     b) pneumonia
     c) mange

     b) PNEUMONIA

 3.  A pendulous udder is:

     a) one with six teats
     b) one that hangs close to the ground
     c) a perfect udder
     d) a well-balanced udder

     b)  ONE THAT HANGS CLOSE TO THE GROUND

 4.  Producers use a sire selection index called MFP$. MFP stands for:

     a) milk-factor-process
     b) milk-fat-protein
     c) making-fat-protein
     d) milk-for-people

     b) MILK-FAT-PROTEIN

 5.  Protein and fat content of milk is generally:

     a) lower
     b) higher
     c) the same

      in the first half of lactation as compared with the last half of lactation

      a)  LOWER

 6.  Which of the following is not a type of milking parlor?

     a) herringbone
     b) free stall
     c) polygon
     d) trigon

     b) FREE STALL

 7.   How soon after calving should dairy cows be rebred?

     a) 3-5 days
     b) 45-60 days
     c) 10-15 days

     b) 45-60 DAYS

 8.  Feed regulatory law requires that a complete grain mix must list three items on the tag:  minimum protein, minimum
      fat and crude fiber.  Is the fiber value:

     a) maximum
     b) minimum
     c) average

     a)  MAXIMUM

 9.  Effective fiber, measured by the amount of cud chewing, is related to two primary factors.  The first is the amount of
      fiber consumed, the second is related to the kind of fiber.  What can occur if the dairy cow is fed a diet that is too low
      in effective fiber?

     a) displaced abomasum
     b) low milk fat test
     c) laminitis
     d) all of the above

     d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

10.  A calf with swollen and inflamed joints is suffering from what condition?

     a) scours
     b) conjunctivitis
     c) navel ill

     c) NAVEL ILL


 1.  The temperature of milk in a bulk tank should stay about:

     a) 38 - 40o F
     b) 50 - 60o F
     c) 10 - 20o F
     d) or none of the above

     a) 38 - 40o F

 2.  The major compartment of a newborn calf's stomach is the:

     a) rumen
     b) reticulum
     c) omasum
     d) abomasum

     d) ABOMASUM

 3.  What is the term used in dairy cattle judging when a cow is close at the hocks?

     a) single-hocked
     b) cow-hocked
     c) post-legged

     b)  COW-HOCKED

 4.  The A.I. sampling code for bulls with semen distributed to 40 or more herds by an organization as part of a bull
      sampling program is:

     a) Code B
     b) Code M
     c) Code O
     d) Code S

     d) CODE S

5.  Which of the following is a Class III dairy product:

     a) cottage cheese
     b) cheddar cheese
     c) yogurt
     d) ice cream

     b) CHEDDAR CHEESE

 6.  The fewest dairy cows in North Carolina are found in:

     a) the Mountains
     b) the Piedmont
     c) the Coastal Plains

     c)  THE COASTAL PLAINS

 7.  The normal estrus cycle in the dairy cow is:

     a) 2 weeks
     b) 3 weeks
     c)  4 weeks

     b)  THREE WEEKS

 8.  Feed fiber is digested by microorganisms in this part of the cows stomach:

     a) abomasum
     b) omasum
     c) rumen

     c)  RUMEN

 9.  Which of the following is not a legume:

     a) alfalfa
     b) ryegrass
     c) red clover
     d) lespedeza

     b) RYEGRASS

10.  A disease commonly associated with reproductive failure and abortion in dairy cattle is:

     a) osmosis
     b) leptospirosis
     c) coccidiosis

     b) LEPTOSPIROSIS


 1.  The deleterious recessive gene for BLAD is associated with which breed?

      HOLSTEIN

 2.  If the knee of a cow corresponds to the elbow on a human, what part of the cow corresponds to the wrist?

      PASTERN

 3.  What are three (3) bovine sex classes?

      BULL, COW, HEIFER, STEER, BULLOCK, STAG

 4.  What mineral is provided in the human diet mainly by dairy products?

      CALCIUM

 5.  How should calves be grouped after weaning?

      BY SIZE

 6.  Name 2 methods of permanent identification.

      TATTOO, SKETCH, PHOTOGRAPH, FREEZE BRAND, HOT BRAND

 7.  What disease occurs 1 to 2 months after calving and results in an acetone odor in milk and urine?

      KETOSIS

 8.  Using a "cow side milk progesterone test," should cows with a high progesterone level be bred?

       NO

 9.  Milk contains what percent dry matter (DM)?

      11-13%

10. The European Economic Community (Common Market) is the world's leading exporter of dairy products.
      Where does the United States rank?

      THIRD


 1.  What is the average calving interval in the U.S?

      13 - 13.5 Months (Accept 390 - 410 DAYS)

 2.  What percentage of dairy cattle in the United States are infected with bovine leukosis virus (BLV)?

     APPROXIMATELY ONE-THIRD

 3.  Why, other than for a show, are cows clipped, especially in the winter?

      TO HELP KEEP THEM CLEAN, TO HELP KEEP THE MILK CLEAN

 4.  Name the three methods of fly control.

      BIOLOGICAL, CHEMICAL, CULTURAL (MANAGEMENT TECHNIQUES)

 5.  Adding fat is a useful way to increase the ration concentration of___?

      ENERGY

 6.  Which subcategory under the mammary system is allotted the most points on the Dairy Cow Unified Score Card?

     UDDER SUPPORT

 7.  Name 1 of the two (2) major sources of energy for newborn calves.

      LACTOSE AND FAT

 8.  What is the range of classification scores for a Jersey cow to be classified as acceptable?

      60 - 69 POINTS

9.  What is the purpose of keeping cows away from silage for at least two (2) hours prior to milking.

      ELIMINATE FEED FLAVORS IN THE MILK

10.  Who invented the continuous centrifugal cream separator in 1878?

       DR. GUSTAV DE LAVAL

11.  What happens to forage intake as grain consumption increases?

       FORAGE INTAKE IS REDUCED

12.  Which breed generally has milk with the highest butterfat content?

       JERSEY

13.  If you had 100 dairy cows that produced an average of 12,000 lbs. of  milk in one lactation and the middle 67 of
       these cows possessed  records ranging from 11,500 to 12,500 pounds, how would you express the variation of the
       mean production?

      + 500 POUNDS = + ONE STD. DEV.

14.  Amprolium is used to treat what disease or condition in cattle?

      COCCIDIOSIS

15.  Oxytocin can be blocked by a hormone which comes from nerve endings and adrenal gland.  What is the name of
       this hormone?

       ADRENALIN


 1.  T or F    Mammary veins carry milk to the udder.

  FALSE

 2.  T or F    Environmental differences have a greater effect on milk production than do genetics.

TRUE

 3.  T or F    After age 35, over 75% of all women in the United States consume less than the recommended amount of
                    calcium daily.

TRUE

 4.  T or F  Minerals, and particularly trace minerals such as selenium, are toxic at high levels of intake.

TRUE

 5.  T or F   Unlike the fat test, a milk protein test doesn't change from month to month.

FALSE

 6.  T or F   An abnormal female born twin to a bull is called a  Freemartin.

TRUE

 7.  T or F   The antibody content of colostrum from older cows is usually higher than from younger cows.

TRUE

 8.  T or F   A calf with pneumonia will often have elevated body temperature.

TRUE

 9.  T or F   When a cow who is normal in all of her quarters at drying off, she can get mastitis while she is dry.

TRUE

10. T or F   North Carolina is classified as a brucellosis-free state.

TRUE


 1.  Which of the following compounds may be used to increase the crude protein content of silage?

     a) NaCl
     b) Ca glutamate
     c) anhydrous ammonia

     c) ANHYDROUS AMMONIA

 2.  In dairy cattle judging, which area is not part of the topline?

     a) chine
     b) loin
     c) thurl

     c) THURL

 3.  The dimensions for free stall housing for Holstein cows weighing 1400 pounds is about:

     a) width- 3'0", length- 5'
     b) width- 4'0", length- 7'
     c) width - 4'6", length - 7.5'
     d) width - 5'0", length - 7.5'

     b) 4 FT WIDE AND 7 FT IN LENGTH

 4.  Which calf feed would contain the highest level of  digestible energy?

     a) oat hay
     b) colostrum
     c) skim milk

     b) COLOSTRUM

 5.  Drought-stressed forages can be toxic to dairy animals due to:

     a) high protein
     b) high fat
     c) high nitrates

     c) HIGH NITRATES

 6.  Which cow would you expect to pay more for?

     a) a non-sire identified grade
     b) a Sire identified grade cow
     c) a Registered cow

     c) A REGISTERED COW

 7.  There are currently vaccines available for which of the following reproductive diseases:

     a) leptospirosis
     b) brucellosis
     c) vibriosis
     d) all of the above

     d) ALL OF THE ABOVE

  8.  Which of the following is not a recommended pulsator milk rest ratio:

     a) 50:50
     b) 30:70
     c) 70:30

     b) 30:70

 9.  When is it most efficient for a dairy cow to gain weight?

     a) during the dry period
     b) in early lactation
     c) in late lactation

     c) IN LATE LACTATION

10.  Butter has:

     a) more
     b) fewer
     c) the same calories as regular margarine

     c) THE SAME


 1.  The total ration protein requirement for early lactation milking cows is closest to

     a) 18%
     b) 10%
     c) 15%

     a)  18%

 2.  Udder is given:

     a) 10 points
     b) 20 points
     c) 40 points

     on the Dairy Cow Unified Score Card

    c) 40 points

 3.  Which of the following types of vacuum regulators or controllers is generally the most sensitive:

     a) servo diaphragm type
     b) springloaded sleeve
     c) weighted sleeve
     d) weighted arm

     a) SERVO DIAPHRAGM TYPE

   4.  At what age are dairy calves usually weaned?

     a) 5 - 6 months
     b) 5 - 6 days
     c) 4 - 8 weeks

    c) 4 - 8 WEEKS

 5.  Bloat in dairy cattle is usually caused by feeding:

     a) fresh grass
     b) corn silage
     c) fresh legumes
     d) wheat hay

     c) FRESH LEGUMES

 6.  Which of the following is not an undesirable genetic recessive trait found in dairy cattle:

     a) Bulldog
     b) Big foot
     c) Mulefoot
     d) Pink Tooth
     e) None of the above

     b) BIG FOOT

  7.   In the process of embryo transfer, the cow that receives the fertilized egg is called the

     a)donor cow
     b) recipient cow
     c) transfer cow

     b) RECIPIENT COW

 8.  According to Hoard's Dairyman which of the following is the most used teat dip:

     a) quaternary ammonia compounds
     b) chlorhexidines
     c) iodophors (iodine)
     d) sodium hypochlorites (chlorine)

     c) IODOPHORS (IODINE)

   9.  How many upper incisors does a cow have?

     a) none
     b) two
     c) four
     d) six

     a)  NONE

10.  Dairy products provide approximately what portion of the calcium in the American diet?

     a) 10%
     b) 30%
     c) 70%

     c)  70%


 1.  How much calf starter should a well grown calf be eating at the time of weaning?

      1.5 TO 2.0 POUNDS PER DAY

 2.  Give another name for a condition commonly called founder.

      LAMINITIS

 3.  In some herds there is colored chalk or paint on the tailhead.  What is the purpose of this chalk or paste?

      IT IS A HEAT DETECTION AID

  4.  Regarding milking equipment, what do the letters C I P stand for?

      CLEAN IN PLACE

  5.  What is the milk "let-down" hormone?

       OXYTOCIN

  6.  Name the largest butter producer in the United States.

       LAND-O-LAKES

  7.  The percentage of moisture plus percentage of dry matter in a silage sample should equal.

       100%

 8.  Two black and white Holsteins are mated, both are carriers of the red factor.  What percent of their offspring would
       be expected to be red and white?

      25%

 9.  What is the term use to describe a cow whose rear hocks are too close?

      COW HOCKED

  10.  What do the letters ECM stand for?

       ENERGY-CORRECTED MILK


 1.  What is a produce of dam in a dairy cattle show?

       TWO ANIMALS OF EITHER SEX, ANY AGE, WHO ARE PROGENY OF ONE COW

 2.  A successful dairy business is dependent upon good records.  What are four kinds of records that are needed?

      IDENTIFICATION, COW PRODUCTION, BREEDING AND CALVING, FINANCIAL

 3.  Name the three (3) placental membranes in domestic livestock (cattle, sheep, pigs).

      CHORION, ALLANTOIS, AMNION

 4.  What does colostrum contain that provides passive immunity to calves?

      ANTIBODIES OR IMMUNOGLOBULINS

 5.  What metabolic disorder do the initials DA stand for?

      DISPLACED ABOMASUM

 6.  Name one of the two amino acids that are considered to be limiting or co-limiting for milk protein synthesis.

      METHIONINE AND LYSINE

 7.  What colors are the dairy cows which originated in Germany or Holland?

       BLACK AND WHITE AND RED AND WHITE

  8.  What genetic measurement is the best estimate of a proven bull's future PTA milk?

       HIS PRESENT PTA MILK

 9.  The freezing point of milk as determined by a cryoscope is used to determine the presence of  what contaminant in milk?

      ADDED WATER

10. Vitamin E plays a close role with what mineral?

       SELENIUM

11. Who is considered to be the father of modern genetics?

      GREGOR MENDEL

12.  What is the bacterial infection that occurs in the eyes of cattle that can result in blindness and is thought to be spread
        by flies?

        PINKEYE

13.  What is the primary mode of heat loss in cattle when they are under sprinklers and fans?

        EVAPORATIVE COOLING

14.  The function of a regulator on a milking system is to.

       REGULATE VACUUM (PREVENTS VACUUM FROM GOING DANGEROUSLY HIGH)

15.  Spell Ayrshire.

      A-Y-R-S-H-I-R-E


1.  A ton (2000 pounds) of dairy feed is formulated to contain 24% crude protein.  How many pounds of crude protein
     are contained in a ton of this feed?

     A) 240   B) 480   C) 200

2.  A cow eats 50 pounds of corn silage that is 35% dry matter.  How many pounds of dry matter has she eaten from
     the silage?

     A) 17.5  B) 35   C) 10.5

3.  What is the maximum somatic cell count (SCC) regulatory limit in milk?

     A) 500,00 cells/ml  B) 750,000 cells/ml C) 10.5

4.  In dairy cattle rations, as the ADF level increases, the energy level:

     A) increases  B) decreased  C) does not change

5.  What is the name of the contractile tissue which, when stimulated by oxytocin, forces milk out of the alveoli?

     A) myoepithelium  B) streak canal  C) prolactin

6.  Why is Deccox® normally included in a calf starter mix?

     A) to increase palatability
     B) to increase the energy content
     C) to control coccidiosis in the calf

7.  Methionine and Lysine are examples of:

     A) minerals  B) carbohydrates  C) amino acids

8.  A sterile heifer born twin with a bull is termed a:

     A) steer  B) capon  C) freemartin

9.  The site of fertilization in the cow is:

     A) the ovary  B) the cervix  C) the oviduct

10.  Name the 5 major categories listed on the PDCA Dairy Cow Unified Score Card:

                       1.
                       2.
                       3.
                       4.
                       5.

11. Johne’s Disease is referred to by another name by many veterinarians:

     A) paratuberculosis  B) campylobacteriosis  C) agroceriosis

12. A CMT is a screening test used to detect mastitis.  What does CMT stand for?

13. What does MUN stand for?

14. A Holstein heifer weighs 90 pounds at birth and 450 pounds at 180 days of age.  Calculate her average daily gain.

15. An ionophore increases feed efficiency in growing heifers.  What is the name of an ionophore that should be included
      in dairy heifer diets?

16. Diagram A is a sketch of part of the digestive system of a dairy cow.  The four compartments of the stomach are
      numbered 1-4.  Identify each of the four stomach compartments.

                        1.
                        2.
                        3.
                        4.

17. The highest percentage of crud protein in a grass pasture is when the plants are:

     A) in the vegetative stage of growth
     B) above 24 inches in height
     C) in bloom and about to form seeds

18. In DHIA records, the voluntary waiting period (VWP) refers to:

     A) the length of the dry period
     B) the time between milking
     C) the time from calving to start of re-breeding

19. During embryo transfer, the transplanted embryo is placed:

     A) in the uterine horn on the same side as the corpus lutum
     B) in the cervix between the first and second ring
     C) in the front part of the vagina

20. United DHIA includes most DHI dairy producers from:

     A) North Carolina and South Carolina
     B) North Carolina and Tennessee
     C) North Carolina and Virginia


ANSWER KEY

 1.     B) 480 pounds
 2.     A) 17.5 pounds of dry matter (50 pounds x 35% = 17.5 pounds DM)
 3.     B) 750,000 cells/ml
 4.     B) decreases
 5.     A) myoepithelium
 6.     C) to control coccidiosis in the calf
 7.     C) amino acids
 8.     C) freemartin
 9.     C) the oviduct
10.    Frame, dairy character, body capacity, feet and legs, and udder
11.    A) paratuberculosis
12.    California Mastitis Test
13.    Milk Urea Nitrogen
14.    Average daily gain = 2 pounds
               450-90 = 360
               360 ÷ 180 = 2
15.    Runensin® or Monensin
         Bovatec ® or Lasolocid
16.    1.  Rumen
         2.  Reticulum
         3.  Omasum
         4.  Abomasum
17.    A) in the vegetative stage of growth
18.    C) the time from calving to the start of re-breeding
19.    A) in the uterine horn on the same side as the corpus luteum
20.    C) North Carolina and Virginia